Software Engineering MCQ Test

1. What is software engineering?

• A. Repairing computer hardware
• B. A systematic, disciplined approach to developing and maintaining software
• C. Writing code without a plan
• D. Installing operating systems

Answer: A systematic, disciplined approach to developing and maintaining software

2. What does SDLC stand for?

• A. Software Development Life Cycle
• B. System Design Logic Chart
• C. Standard Data Level Control
• D. Software Deployment Load Control

Answer: Software Development Life Cycle

3. Which is normally the first phase of the SDLC?

• A. Coding
• B. Requirement analysis
• C. Testing
• D. Deployment

Answer: Requirement analysis

4. Which SDLC phase comes immediately after design?

• A. Testing
• B. Implementation (coding)
• C. Analysis
• D. Maintenance

Answer: Implementation (coding)

5. Which is usually the last phase of the SDLC?

• A. Testing
• B. Deployment
• C. Maintenance
• D. Design

Answer: Maintenance

6. Which software model follows a strict sequence of phases with no overlap?

• A. Spiral model
• B. Waterfall model
• C. Agile model
• D. Prototype model

Answer: Waterfall model

7. What is the main disadvantage of the waterfall model?

• A. It is too fast
• B. Going back to change earlier phases is difficult and costly
• C. It needs no documentation
• D. It cannot be used for large projects

Answer: Going back to change earlier phases is difficult and costly

8. Which model emphasises risk analysis in each cycle?

• A. Waterfall
• B. Spiral
• C. V-model
• D. Big bang

Answer: Spiral

9. Which model builds a working sample first to clarify requirements?

• A. Waterfall
• B. Prototype model
• C. V-model
• D. Spiral

Answer: Prototype model

10. Which development approach delivers software in short, repeated iterations?

• A. Waterfall
• B. Agile
• C. Big bang
• D. Linear

Answer: Agile

11. In the V-model, what is each development phase paired with?

• A. A documentation phase
• B. A corresponding testing phase
• C. A design review
• D. A deployment step

Answer: A corresponding testing phase

12. What is a Scrum sprint?

• A. A performance test
• B. A short fixed-length iteration producing a working increment
• C. A bug-fixing session
• D. A project meeting

Answer: A short fixed-length iteration producing a working increment

13. What is an SRS document?

• A. Software Requirement Specification
• B. System Restore Setting
• C. Standard Report Sheet
• D. Software Release Schedule

Answer: Software Requirement Specification

14. What are functional requirements?

• A. What the system should do
• B. How fast the system should run
• C. How secure the system should be
• D. How the system should look

Answer: What the system should do

15. What are non-functional requirements?

• A. The system's features
• B. Qualities such as performance, security and usability
• C. The list of users
• D. The source code

Answer: Qualities such as performance, security and usability

16. What is coupling in software design?

• A. The degree of interdependence between modules
• B. The number of lines of code
• C. The speed of execution
• D. The number of users

Answer: The degree of interdependence between modules

17. What is cohesion in software design?

• A. How closely related the responsibilities within a module are
• B. How many modules exist
• C. How fast a module runs
• D. The size of a module

Answer: How closely related the responsibilities within a module are

18. What is the goal of good modular design?

• A. High coupling and low cohesion
• B. Low coupling and high cohesion
• C. High coupling and high cohesion
• D. Low coupling and low cohesion

Answer: Low coupling and high cohesion

19. What is a DFD?

• A. Data Flow Diagram
• B. Direct File Descriptor
• C. Design Function Document
• D. Dynamic Format Definition

Answer: Data Flow Diagram

20. What does a level-0 DFD represent?

• A. Detailed sub-processes
• B. The whole system as a single process (context diagram)
• C. The database schema
• D. The user interface

Answer: The whole system as a single process (context diagram)

21. What is black box testing?

• A. Testing without knowledge of internal code structure
• B. Testing the source code line by line
• C. Testing only the database
• D. Testing in a dark room

Answer: Testing without knowledge of internal code structure

22. What is white box testing?

• A. Testing based on external behaviour only
• B. Testing with full knowledge of the internal code
• C. Testing by end users
• D. Testing the hardware

Answer: Testing with full knowledge of the internal code

23. What is unit testing?

• A. Testing the whole system
• B. Testing individual components or functions in isolation
• C. Testing by customers
• D. Testing the network

Answer: Testing individual components or functions in isolation

24. What is integration testing?

• A. Testing single functions
• B. Testing how combined modules work together
• C. Testing the user interface only
• D. Testing performance

Answer: Testing how combined modules work together

25. What is regression testing?

• A. Testing new features only
• B. Re-testing to confirm that changes have not broken existing functionality
• C. Testing under heavy load
• D. Testing for security holes

Answer: Re-testing to confirm that changes have not broken existing functionality

26. What is alpha testing?

• A. Testing by end users at their own site
• B. Testing by the development team at the developer's site
• C. Automated testing
• D. Security testing

Answer: Testing by the development team at the developer's site

27. What is beta testing?

• A. Testing by real users in the real environment before final release
• B. Testing by developers
• C. Testing the database
• D. Load testing

Answer: Testing by real users in the real environment before final release

28. What is stress testing?

• A. Testing usability
• B. Testing behaviour beyond normal operating limits
• C. Testing documentation
• D. Testing spelling

Answer: Testing behaviour beyond normal operating limits

29. Which testing checks that the system meets the customer's requirements before acceptance?

• A. Unit testing
• B. Acceptance testing
• C. Smoke testing
• D. Integration testing

Answer: Acceptance testing

30. What is debugging?

• A. Writing new features
• B. Finding and fixing the cause of a known defect
• C. Designing the interface
• D. Deploying the software

Answer: Finding and fixing the cause of a known defect

31. What is the difference between verification and validation?

• A. They are the same
• B. Verification asks 'are we building it right', validation asks 'are we building the right thing'
• C. Validation happens first
• D. Verification is only for hardware

Answer: Verification asks 'are we building it right', validation asks 'are we building the right thing'

32. What is software maintenance?

• A. Cleaning the computer
• B. Modifying software after delivery to fix faults or improve it
• C. Writing the first version
• D. Testing before release

Answer: Modifying software after delivery to fix faults or improve it

33. Which type of maintenance fixes discovered defects?

• A. Adaptive
• B. Corrective
• C. Perfective
• D. Preventive

Answer: Corrective

34. Which type of maintenance adapts software to a changed environment?

• A. Corrective
• B. Adaptive
• C. Perfective
• D. Emergency

Answer: Adaptive

35. What does UML stand for?

• A. Unified Modeling Language
• B. Universal Machine Language
• C. User Manual Layout
• D. Unified Method Library

Answer: Unified Modeling Language

36. Which UML diagram shows how users interact with the system?

• A. Class diagram
• B. Use case diagram
• C. Sequence diagram
• D. State diagram

Answer: Use case diagram

37. Which UML diagram shows classes and their relationships?

• A. Use case diagram
• B. Class diagram
• C. Activity diagram
• D. Deployment diagram

Answer: Class diagram

38. Which UML diagram shows the order of messages between objects over time?

• A. Class diagram
• B. Sequence diagram
• C. Component diagram
• D. Object diagram

Answer: Sequence diagram

39. What is a Gantt chart used for?

• A. Database design
• B. Project scheduling and tracking
• C. Code review
• D. Network layout

Answer: Project scheduling and tracking

40. What does COCOMO estimate?

• A. Network bandwidth
• B. Software development cost and effort
• C. Database size
• D. Test coverage

Answer: Software development cost and effort

41. What is a software prototype?

• A. The final product
• B. An early working sample used to explore requirements
• C. A test script
• D. A design document

Answer: An early working sample used to explore requirements

42. What is version control used for?

• A. Controlling software licences
• B. Tracking and managing changes to source code over time
• C. Managing user accounts
• D. Testing performance

Answer: Tracking and managing changes to source code over time

43. Which of these is a popular version control system?

• A. Git
• B. MySQL
• C. Apache
• D. Linux

Answer: Git

44. What is CASE in software engineering?

• A. Computer Aided Software Engineering
• B. Central Application System Engine
• C. Coded Automatic Systems Environment
• D. Client Application Service Estimate

Answer: Computer Aided Software Engineering

45. What is software quality assurance concerned with?

• A. Selling the software
• B. Ensuring processes and products meet defined quality standards
• C. Writing the code
• D. Buying hardware

Answer: Ensuring processes and products meet defined quality standards

46. What is a use case?

• A. A hardware container
• B. A description of how a user achieves a goal with the system
• C. A test result
• D. A database table

Answer: A description of how a user achieves a goal with the system

47. What is feasibility study in software projects?

• A. Testing the finished product
• B. Assessing whether the project is practical and worthwhile
• C. Writing the manual
• D. Training the users

Answer: Assessing whether the project is practical and worthwhile

48. Which feasibility type examines whether the technology needed is available?

• A. Economic feasibility
• B. Technical feasibility
• C. Operational feasibility
• D. Legal feasibility

Answer: Technical feasibility